Author: Sun

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QUIZ: Packet Forwarding

1. What is the primary function of a router in packet forwarding?
   a) To generate traffic
   b) To route packets to their destination based on IP addresses
   c) To store data packets
   d) To encrypt data

2. Which layer of the OSI model is primarily involved in packet forwarding?
   a) Data Link Layer
   b) Network Layer
   c) Physical Layer
   d) Application Layer

3. What does “Longest Prefix Match” refer to in packet forwarding?
   a) Matching the shortest network prefix
   b) Matching the most specific route in the routing table
   c) Matching any route regardless of prefix length
   d) Avoiding routing altogether

4. Which command shows the IP routing table on a Cisco device?
   a) show ip int brief
   b) show interfaces
   c) show ip route
   d) show ip arp

5. What is a default route used for in packet forwarding?
   a) To route packets to specific subnets only
   b) To drop packets with no destination
   c) To send packets to an unknown destination
   d) To manage DNS requests

6. What role does ARP (Address Resolution Protocol) play in packet forwarding?
   a) Encrypts data packets
   b) Translates IP addresses to MAC addresses
   c) Monitors network traffic
   d) Blocks unauthorized users

7. Which protocol is used to update and maintain routing tables dynamically?
   a) HTTP
   b) FTP
   c) RIP
   d) DNS

8. What does TTL (Time to Live) in an IP packet signify?
   a) The time a packet should remain on the network
   b) The number of hops a packet can take before being discarded
   c) The number of packets allowed in a session
   d) The priority of the packet

9. What is the purpose of a routing metric?
   a) To measure data size
   b) To determine the best path for packet forwarding
   c) To encrypt routing updates
   d) To log network traffic

10. Which command would you use to clear the routing table cache on a Cisco router?
    a) clear ip route
    b) reset ip cache
    c) flush routing table
    d) clear ip cache

11. How does a router handle a packet with a destination IP that is not in its routing table?
    a) It drops the packet
    b) It forwards it to all interfaces
    c) It forwards it to the default gateway
    d) It sends a warning to the sender

12. What is the administrative distance used for in routing?
    a) To calculate the cost of a route
    b) To rate the reliability of a routing source
    c) To measure network latency
    d) To prioritize DNS requests

13. Which protocol is known for using hop count as its primary metric?
    a) BGP
    b) OSPF
    c) RIP
    d) EIGRP

14. What is the role of ICMP in packet forwarding?
    a) To control flow of packets
    b) To detect and report network errors
    c) To encrypt data packets
    d) To route packets between networks

15. What does “convergence” mean in the context of routing?
    a) All routers agree on the optimal path for forwarding packets
    b) A router is disconnected from the network
    c) The network experiences packet loss
    d) A router is added to the network

QUIZ: Spanning Tree Protocol

1. What is the primary purpose of Spanning Tree Protocol (STP)?
   a) To create VLANs
   b) To prevent network loops
   c) To configure IP addresses
   d) To encrypt network traffic

2. Which switch is elected as the root bridge in STP?
   a) The one with the highest MAC address
   b) The one with the lowest MAC address
   c) The one with the highest priority
   d) The one with the lowest priority

3. What does BPDU stand for in STP?
   a) Bridge Protocol Data Unit
   b) Binary Protocol Data Unit
   c) Broadcast Packet Data Unit
   d) Backbone Protocol Data Unit

4. What is the role of the root port in STP?
   a) The port closest to the root bridge
   b) The port farthest from the root bridge
   c) The port used for blocking traffic
   d) The port used for sending BPDUs

5. How often are BPDUs sent in an STP network?
   a) Every 1 second
   b) Every 2 seconds
   c) Every 10 seconds
   d) Every 30 seconds

6. What happens to a port in the STP “Blocking” state?
   a) It forwards traffic
   b) It listens for traffic but does not forward
   c) It learns MAC addresses but does not forward
   d) It does not participate in frame forwarding

7. Which STP state allows a port to learn MAC addresses but not forward traffic?
   a) Blocking
   b) Listening
   c) Learning
   d) Forwarding

8. How does STP determine the best path to the root bridge?
   a) By counting VLANs
   b) By calculating path cost based on port speed
   c) By counting IP addresses
   d) By measuring signal strength

9. What is the default priority value for a switch in STP?
   a) 32768
   b) 4096
   c) 1024
   d) 65535

10. What command enables Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (RSTP) on a Cisco switch?
    a) spanning-tree mode rapid-pvst
    b) spanning-tree enable rstp
    c) stp mode rapid
    d) spanning-tree fast mode

11. What is the role of the designated port in STP?
    a) To block traffic
    b) To forward traffic towards the root bridge
    c) To listen for BPDUs only
    d) To disable the network

12. What is a potential problem if STP is not enabled on a switched network?
    a) Reduced VLAN capacity
    b) Network loops and broadcast storms
    c) Increased IP conflicts
    d) Lower bandwidth usage

13. How can a network administrator manually change the root bridge in an STP network?
    a) By changing the MAC address
    b) By increasing the BPDU interval
    c) By lowering the switch priority value
    d) By enabling port security

14. Which IEEE standard corresponds to the original Spanning Tree Protocol?
    a) IEEE 802.1q
    b) IEEE 802.1d
    c) IEEE 802.3
    d) IEEE 802.11

15. What happens when a switch detects a topology change in STP?
    a) It recalculates the spanning tree
    b) It disables all ports
    c) It broadcasts a topology change notification (TCN)
    d) It restarts all routing protocols

QUIZ: Advanced STP Tuning

1. What is the purpose of adjusting STP port cost values?
   a) To increase VLAN priority
   b) To influence the selection of the path to the root bridge
   c) To reduce traffic speed
   d) To block all ports

2. Which command sets the STP port priority on a Cisco switch?
   a) spanning-tree port priority
   b) stp priority set
   c) spanning-tree cost
   d) spanning-tree port-priority

3. What does the command “spanning-tree portfast” do?
   a) Puts a port into blocking state
   b) Allows a port to immediately transition to forwarding state
   c) Disables STP on a port
   d) Sets the port cost to zero

4. Why should PortFast not be enabled on a trunk port?
   a) It increases the risk of VLAN conflicts
   b) It can cause routing loops
   c) It can cause network loops
   d) It lowers port speed

5. What is BPDU Guard used for in STP?
   a) To block BPDUs on trunk ports
   b) To disable ports receiving unauthorized BPDUs
   c) To increase port forwarding speed
   d) To encrypt BPDU messages

6. Which STP mode provides faster convergence than the original STP?
   a) Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (RSTP)
   b) Multiple Spanning Tree Protocol (MSTP)
   c) VLAN Trunking Protocol (VTP)
   d) Transparent Bridging

7. What effect does configuring “spanning-tree bpdufilter enable” on a port have?
   a) Prevents the port from sending or receiving BPDUs
   b) Forces the port into a blocking state
   c) Filters BPDUs on trunk ports only
   d) Allows BPDUs to pass through unaffected

8. What does the “spanning-tree uplinkfast” command do?
   a) Enables PortFast on all ports
   b) Accelerates the transition from blocking to forwarding state
   c) Enables BPDU Guard
   d) Increases VLAN bandwidth

9. What is the effect of the “spanning-tree backbonefast” command?
   a) Speeds up convergence when an indirect failure is detected
   b) Disables STP on all ports
   c) Forces all ports to the forwarding state
   d) Lowers the bridge priority

10. What is the purpose of setting the STP max age timer?
    a) To determine the age of the switch
    b) To specify how long a switch retains BPDU information before discarding it
    c) To control VLAN propagation speed
    d) To reset the root bridge timer

11. What does the “spanning-tree guard root” command do?
    a) Disables STP on all ports
    b) Protects the root bridge from indirect changes
    c) Prevents unauthorized switches from becoming the root bridge
    d) Forces root guard on all ports

12. Which command would you use to verify the current STP configuration on a Cisco switch?
    a) show spanning-tree
    b) show ip route
    c) show mac address-table
    d) show vlan

13. What is the benefit of using EtherChannel with STP?
    a) Reduces the number of spanning tree instances
    b) Increases VLAN ID range
    c) Prevents BPDU filtering
    d) Enhances multicast traffic only

14. What is the default hello time for BPDUs in an STP network?
    a) 1 second
    b) 2 seconds
    c) 5 seconds
    d) 10 seconds

15. What happens when a BPDU is received on a port configured with BPDU Guard?
    a) The port immediately transitions to the forwarding state
    b) The port is shut down or put into err-disabled state
    c) The port sends a warning message
    d) The port allows the BPDU to pass through

QUIZ: Multiple Spanning Tree Protocol

1. What is the primary advantage of Multiple Spanning Tree Protocol (MSTP)?
   a) Increases port speed
   b) Allows multiple VLANs to be mapped to a single spanning tree instance
   c) Decreases network security
   d) Creates multiple BPDUs

2. What IEEE standard defines Multiple Spanning Tree Protocol (MSTP)?
   a) IEEE 802.1w
   b) IEEE 802.1s
   c) IEEE 802.3
   d) IEEE 802.1q

3. How does MSTP reduce the number of STP instances in a network?
   a) By using fewer switches
   b) By mapping multiple VLANs to a single spanning tree instance
   c) By increasing the BPDU frequency
   d) By blocking all ports

4. What is an MST region?
   a) A set of MST switches with the same VLAN mapping and configuration
   b) A physical area in a data center
   c) A type of firewall zone
   d) A collection of IP subnets

5. What does an MST instance (MSTI) represent in MSTP?
   a) A single VLAN
   b) A unique spanning tree for a set of VLANs
   c) A redundant link
   d) A routing protocol

6. Which command is used to configure MST on a Cisco switch?
   a) spanning-tree mode mst
   b) mst configure mode
   c) spanning-tree mst enable
   d) stp mode multiple

7. How does MSTP provide backward compatibility with RSTP and STP?
   a) By blocking RSTP and STP BPDUs
   b) By supporting MST regions that can interoperate with RSTP and STP regions
   c) By ignoring older protocol messages
   d) By running on a different frequency

8. What is the purpose of MST configuration revision number?
   a) To prioritize VLANs
   b) To identify changes in MST configuration
   c) To reset STP settings
   d) To set BPDU guard

9. Which MSTP attribute must match on all switches in the same MST region?
   a) Bridge ID
   b) VLAN range
   c) MST name and revision number
   d) BPDU interval

10. How does MSTP handle loops within its region?
    a) By blocking all ports
    b) By using a unique spanning tree instance per VLAN
    c) By creating a loop-free topology for each MST instance
    d) By enabling portfast on all ports

11. What happens if there is a mismatch in MST configuration between switches?
    a) Traffic is rerouted through another switch
    b) The affected VLANs are blocked
    c) The switches operate in separate regions, and BPDUs are not processed correctly
    d) The network shuts down

12. What is the default maximum hop count for MSTP?
    a) 10 hops
    b) 15 hops
    c) 20 hops
    d) 40 hops

13. Which feature of MSTP provides a more scalable solution compared to PVST+?
    a) Fast convergence
    b) Compatibility with IEEE standards
    c) Fewer spanning tree instances
    d) Increased port speed

14. How does MSTP achieve better convergence times than classic STP?
    a) By using faster switches
    b) By sending more BPDUs
    c) By incorporating RSTP features for faster failover
    d) By blocking fewer ports

15. What is the main role of the MSTP root bridge?
    a) To block all unused ports
    b) To act as a reference point for all spanning tree calculations in its MST region
    c) To increase VLAN capacity
    d) To encrypt network traffic

QUIZ: VLAN Trunks and EtherChannel Bundles

1. What is the primary purpose of a VLAN trunk?
   a) To reduce network bandwidth
   b) To allow multiple VLANs to pass through a single network link
   c) To connect only wireless devices
   d) To isolate VLANs from each other

2. Which protocol is commonly used to manage VLAN information across switches?
   a) OSPF
   b) STP
   c) VTP
   d) BGP

3. What does “802.1Q” refer to in networking?
   a) A wireless standard
   b) A VLAN tagging standard
   c) A routing protocol
   d) A QoS configuration

4. How does the EtherChannel technology enhance network performance?
   a) By encrypting all data
   b) By bundling multiple physical links into one logical link
   c) By blocking all unused ports
   d) By providing QoS for voice traffic

5. What command is used to create an EtherChannel group on a Cisco switch?
   a) channel-group
   b) etherchannel create
   c) port-channel add
   d) group add

6. What mode must be set on both switches to form a dynamic EtherChannel using PAgP?
   a) Active/Passive
   b) Desirable/Auto
   c) Trunk/Access
   d) On/Off

7. What is the native VLAN in 802.1Q trunking?
   a) A VLAN that does not require tagging
   b) A VLAN that always requires tagging
   c) A VLAN that encrypts all traffic
   d) A VLAN used only for management

8. Which protocol does EtherChannel use for dynamic link aggregation?
   a) RIP
   b) OSPF
   c) PAgP and LACP
   d) MPLS

9. How do you verify an EtherChannel status on a Cisco switch?
   a) show ip route
   b) show etherchannel summary
   c) show vlan brief
   d) show interfaces trunk

10. What is the main advantage of using VLAN trunks between switches?
    a) To reduce IP addresses needed
    b) To allow multiple VLANs to communicate over a single physical link
    c) To disable STP
    d) To increase network speed automatically

11. How does an EtherChannel prevent network loops?
    a) By blocking all unused ports
    b) By bundling links and treating them as a single logical connection
    c) By using STP in all links
    d) By enabling BPDU guard

12. What happens if there is a misconfiguration in an EtherChannel bundle?
    a) The entire EtherChannel will go down
    b) Only one link will be affected
    c) It will automatically correct itself
    d) The switch will reboot

13. Which command is used to configure an interface to trunk mode?
    a) switchport mode trunk
    b) switchport mode access
    c) trunk enable
    d) vlan trunk set

14. What does “load balancing” mean in the context of EtherChannel?
    a) Equal distribution of traffic across multiple links in the EtherChannel bundle
    b) Blocking half the ports
    c) Using only one link at a time
    d) Encrypting all data

15. What is the default load-balancing method used by EtherChannel on Cisco switches?
    a) IP address
    b) Source MAC address
    c) Destination port
    d) Source and destination IP

QUIZ: IP Routing Essentials

1. What is the main function of IP routing?
   a) To encrypt data packets
   b) To find the best path for data packets to reach their destination
   c) To prevent network access
   d) To block unauthorized devices

2. Which type of routing uses manually configured routes?
   a) Dynamic routing
   b) Static routing
   c) OSPF
   d) RIP

3. What command is used to display the routing table on a Cisco router?
   a) show ip route
   b) show running-config
   c) show interfaces
   d) show ip interface brief

4. What does “administrative distance” signify in IP routing?
   a) The size of the routing table
   b) The reliability of a routing protocol
   c) The speed of the router
   d) The number of hops to the destination

5. Which routing protocol uses the Dijkstra algorithm to find the shortest path?
   a) RIP
   b) EIGRP
   c) OSPF
   d) BGP

6. What is the purpose of a default route in IP routing?
   a) To route all packets to a known destination
   b) To drop packets with unknown destinations
   c) To provide a path to any destination not listed in the routing table
   d) To encrypt data packets

7. What does the command “ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 [next-hop]” do?
   a) Sets up a static route to a specific network
   b) Configures a default route
   c) Enables OSPF on all interfaces
   d) Disables all dynamic routing

8. Which protocol is known as a hybrid routing protocol?
   a) RIP
   b) OSPF
   c) EIGRP
   d) BGP

9. How does a router determine the best route when multiple routes to the same destination exist?
   a) By choosing the longest route
   b) By using the route with the lowest administrative distance
   c) By selecting a random route
   d) By using the route with the highest metric

10. What is the main characteristic of distance-vector routing protocols?
    a) They use a map-based approach
    b) They calculate routes based on hop count
    c) They build a complete map of network topology
    d) They use link state algorithms

11. What is the function of a routing metric?
    a) To calculate the best route for data packets
    b) To encrypt data
    c) To determine the size of the routing table
    d) To create VLANs

12. How does EIGRP calculate its routing metric?
    a) By using only hop count
    b) By combining bandwidth and delay
    c) By using a cost metric
    d) By using only the shortest path

13. What is meant by “route summarization”?
    a) Combining multiple routes into a single route advertisement
    b) Splitting a single route into multiple routes
    c) Encrypting route updates
    d) Blocking unauthorized routing

14. Which command would you use to enable OSPF on a router interface?
    a) router ospf
    b) ip ospf enable
    c) network [network-address] area [area-id]
    d) ospf start

15. What is a “floating static route”?
    a) A route that is always preferred
    b) A backup route with a higher administrative distance than a dynamic route
    c) A route that changes based on time
    d) A route with zero administrative distance

QUIZ: EIGRP

1. What does EIGRP stand for?
   a) Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol
   b) Enterprise Internet Gateway Routing Protocol
   c) Efficient Interior Gateway Routing Protocol
   d) Enhanced Inter-network Gateway Routing Protocol

2. What metric components does EIGRP use by default to determine the best path?
   a) Bandwidth and delay
   b) Hop count and load
   c) Reliability and cost
   d) Distance and time

3. What is the administrative distance of EIGRP for internal routes?
   a) 90
   b) 110
   c) 120
   d) 200

4. Which command displays EIGRP topology information on a Cisco router?
   a) show ip eigrp topology
   b) show eigrp summary
   c) show ip route
   d) show ip eigrp interfaces

5. What is the purpose of the “feasible successor” in EIGRP?
   a) A backup route stored in the routing table
   b) A route used to encrypt data
   c) A non-backup route discarded by the router
   d) A route used only in multicast traffic

6. How does EIGRP achieve fast convergence?
   a) By using a single path
   b) By storing backup routes in the topology table
   c) By sending updates to the entire network
   d) By resetting all routes periodically

7. Which command is used to enable EIGRP on a Cisco router?
   a) router eigrp [AS-number]
   b) eigrp start [AS-number]
   c) enable eigrp [AS-number]
   d) ip eigrp enable

8. What type of protocol is EIGRP?
   a) Distance-vector
   b) Link-state
   c) Hybrid
   d) Path-vector

9. What does “DUAL” stand for in EIGRP?
   a) Dual Unified Algorithmic Logic
   b) Diffusing Update Algorithm
   c) Distributed Update Algorithmic Logic
   d) Dynamic Unified Algorithm

10. What does “K values” refer to in EIGRP?
    a) Metrics used to calculate the best path
    b) Key values for authentication
    c) Random numbers used in routing updates
    d) VLAN IDs used in EIGRP

11. What command is used to display EIGRP neighbors?
    a) show ip eigrp neighbors
    b) show eigrp neighbor-table
    c) display ip eigrp peers
    d) show ip ospf neighbor

12. What is the maximum number of equal-cost paths that EIGRP can load balance by default?
    a) 1
    b) 4
    c) 6
    d) 16

13. How does EIGRP handle routing loops?
    a) By using split horizon and hold-down timers
    b) By increasing hop count
    c) By broadcasting updates
    d) By disabling all routes

14. What does the “variance” command do in EIGRP?
    a) Allows unequal-cost load balancing
    b) Sets the hop count
    c) Increases convergence time
    d) Reduces bandwidth usage

15. Which multicast address does EIGRP use to send updates?
    a) 224.0.0.5
    b) 224.0.0.10
    c) 224.0.0.9
    d) 224.0.0.6

QUIZ: OSPF

1. What does OSPF stand for?
   a) Open Shortest Path First
   b) Optimal Shortest Path First
   c) Open Source Path Forwarding
   d) Organized Spanning Path Frame

2. What is the administrative distance of OSPF?
   a) 90
   b) 110
   c) 120
   d) 100

3. Which algorithm does OSPF use to calculate the shortest path?
   a) Bellman-Ford
   b) Dijkstra
   c) Distance Vector
   d) Floyd-Warshall

4. What is an OSPF area?
   a) A group of networks under a single administrative domain
   b) A logical group of routers exchanging routing information
   c) A physical location for routers
   d) A VLAN-based segmentation

5. What is the purpose of a DR (Designated Router) in OSPF?
   a) To act as a backup router
   b) To reduce the number of OSPF adjacencies in a broadcast network
   c) To disable unused ports
   d) To increase the number of routing updates

6. Which command is used to enable OSPF on a Cisco router interface?
   a) router ospf [process-id]
   b) ospf enable [process-id]
   c) ip ospf [process-id] area [area-id]
   d) network [network-address] area [area-id]

7. How does OSPF determine the best path to a destination?
   a) Using hop count
   b) Using cost metric based on bandwidth
   c) Using signal strength
   d) Using IP address

8. What is an OSPF LSA (Link State Advertisement)?
   a) A message used to discover new neighbors
   b) A packet that carries routing and topology information
   c) A type of data packet used to encrypt data
   d) A log of all network traffic

9. What is the backbone area in OSPF?
   a) Area 0
   b) Area 1
   c) Area 10
   d) Area 100

10. What happens when an OSPF router detects a link failure?
    a) It sends out a topology change notification
    b) It recalculates the shortest path tree
    c) It stops all routing updates
    d) It restarts

11. Which command is used to view OSPF neighbors?
    a) show ip ospf neighbors
    b) show ospf neighbors
    c) show ip route ospf
    d) show ip ospf neighbor

12. What is the function of an OSPF ABR (Area Border Router)?
    a) To route packets between different OSPF areas
    b) To block external routes
    c) To connect different VLANs
    d) To serve as a backup router

13. What is the default hello interval for OSPF on multi-access networks?
    a) 10 seconds
    b) 30 seconds
    c) 5 seconds
    d) 15 seconds

14. How does OSPF handle load balancing?
    a) It does not support load balancing
    b) It uses equal-cost multipath (ECMP)
    c) It always chooses the shortest path
    d) It uses only one path

15. What is the role of the OSPF “cost” in routing decisions?
    a) To prioritize VLANs
    b) To determine the shortest path based on bandwidth
    c) To manage IP addresses
    d) To enable BPDU guard

QUIZ: Advanced OSPF

1. What is an OSPF virtual link used for?
   a) To connect non-contiguous areas to the backbone area
   b) To encrypt OSPF traffic
   c) To connect OSPF to non-OSPF networks
   d) To reduce OSPF timers

2. What type of OSPF network does not elect a DR and BDR?
   a) Point-to-Point
   b) Broadcast
   c) Non-Broadcast
   d) Multi-access

3. Which LSA type is used to advertise summary routes between OSPF areas?
   a) Type 1
   b) Type 2
   c) Type 3
   d) Type 4

4. What is OSPF “stub area”?
   a) An area with only one exit point
   b) An area that blocks external routes
   c) An area with no DR
   d) An area with multiple exit points

5. What is the purpose of OSPF “NSSA” (Not-So-Stubby Area)?
   a) To allow external routes into a stub area
   b) To disable OSPF in an area
   c) To encrypt OSPF updates
   d) To prioritize VLANs

6. How does OSPF handle external routes in a stub area?
   a) It allows all external routes
   b) It blocks all external routes
   c) It sends external routes as default routes
   d) It changes external routes to internal

7. What command configures an OSPF stub area on a router?
   a) area [area-id] stub
   b) router ospf stub
   c) ip ospf stub
   d) stub area enable

8. What is the role of OSPF Type 4 LSA?
   a) To advertise inter-area routes
   b) To advertise ASBR (Autonomous System Boundary Router) location
   c) To advertise summary routes
   d) To carry external route information

9. Which OSPF area type does not accept Type 5 LSAs?
   a) Stub area
   b) Backbone area
   c) NSSA
   d) Area 1

10. What is the purpose of the “area [area-id] nssa” command in OSPF?
    a) To create an NSSA area
    b) To block Type 1 LSAs
    c) To configure OSPF virtual links
    d) To enable route summarization

11. How does OSPF calculate cost for a link?
    a) Cost is based on hop count
    b) Cost is based on bandwidth
    c) Cost is fixed for all links
    d) Cost is based on delay

12. What is an “OSPF Totally Stubby Area”?
    a) An area that blocks Type 3, 4, and 5 LSAs
    b) An area that only allows external routes
    c) An area that acts as the backbone
    d) An area that has no router

13. Which command summarizes OSPF routes at an ABR?
    a) area [area-id] range [ip-address] [mask]
    b) ip summary-address ospf [process-id]
    c) summarize ospf [area-id]
    d) ospf summarize routes

14. What does “LSA flooding” refer to in OSPF?
    a) Distributing link-state advertisements to all OSPF routers
    b) Sending encrypted OSPF messages
    c) Blocking external routes
    d) Resetting OSPF neighbors

15. Which command is used to view OSPF Type 4 LSAs?
    a) show ip ospf database asbr-summary
    b) show ip ospf lsa type-4
    c) show ip route ospf
    d) show ip ospf neighbors

QUIZ: OSPFv3

1. What is OSPFv3 designed for?
   a) IPv4 networks only
   b) IPv6 networks
   c) VLAN management
   d) Wireless networks

2. What is the primary difference between OSPFv2 and OSPFv3?
   a) OSPFv3 supports IPv6
   b) OSPFv3 is for wired networks only
   c) OSPFv3 has no DR/BDR election
   d) OSPFv3 does not use LSAs

3. How does OSPFv3 identify routers?
   a) By IPv4 addresses
   b) By Router IDs
   c) By MAC addresses
   d) By DNS names

4. Which command enables OSPFv3 on an interface?
   a) ipv6 ospf [process-id] area [area-id]
   b) ospf ipv6 [process-id] enable
   c) ipv6 router ospf [process-id]
   d) ip ospf3 enable

5. What is the purpose of OSPFv3 “Link-LSAs”?
   a) To advertise router links
   b) To advertise IPv6 prefix information
   c) To encrypt OSPF updates
   d) To manage DR/BDR elections

6. What is the format for Router IDs in OSPFv3?
   a) IPv4 address format
   b) IPv6 address format
   c) MAC address format
   d) Domain name format

7. What type of OSPFv3 LSA is used to advertise intra-area routes?
   a) Type 1
   b) Type 3
   c) Type 5
   d) Type 9

8. How does OSPFv3 handle authentication?
   a) Through IPv6 built-in security
   b) By using IPsec for authentication and encryption
   c) Through clear text passwords
   d) By disabling authentication

9. Which command displays OSPFv3 neighbors?
   a) show ipv6 ospf neighbor
   b) show ospf3 neighbors
   c) show ip ospf neighbor
   d) show ospf neighbors

10. What is the role of an OSPFv3 “Area Router-LSA”?
    a) To advertise ASBRs
    b) To advertise inter-area routes
    c) To summarize IPv6 routes
    d) To advertise the router’s own interfaces

11. What is the default link cost for an OSPFv3 point-to-point link?
    a) 1
    b) 10
    c) 100
    d) 1000

12. What feature allows OSPFv3 to support multiple instances on the same interface?
    a) Instance ID
    b) Area ID
    c) Process ID
    d) Link ID

13. Which IPv6 address is used by OSPFv3 to send updates to all OSPF routers?
    a) FF02::5
    b) FF02::6
    c) FF02::1
    d) FF02::9

14. What does the “ipv6 router ospf” command configure?
    a) OSPFv3 process
    b) OSPFv2 settings for IPv6
    c) EIGRP for IPv6
    d) OSPFv3 routing table

15. How does OSPFv3 support address families?
    a) Through multiple process IDs
    b) By using a single process per address family
    c) By using clear-text passwords
    d) By blocking certain addresses

QUIZ: BGP

1. What does BGP stand for?
   a) Border Gateway Protocol
   b) Backbone Gateway Protocol
   c) Basic Gateway Protocol
   d) Bridged Gateway Protocol

2. Which type of protocol is BGP?
   a) Interior Gateway Protocol
   b) Exterior Gateway Protocol
   c) Distance Vector Protocol
   d) Link State Protocol

3. What is the administrative distance of eBGP?
   a) 20
   b) 90
   c) 110
   d) 200

4. Which command is used to establish a BGP session?
   a) router bgp [AS-number]
   b) enable bgp [AS-number]
   c) bgp establish [AS-number]
   d) bgp start [AS-number]

5. What is the purpose of the BGP “next-hop” attribute?
   a) To specify the next router in the path
   b) To calculate the shortest path
   c) To determine the administrative distance
   d) To set the VLAN priority

6. What does “AS” stand for in BGP?
   a) Administrative Set
   b) Autonomous System
   c) Average Speed
   d) Access System

7. How does BGP prevent routing loops?
   a) By using hop count
   b) By checking the AS path attribute
   c) By encrypting updates
   d) By resetting all routes

8. Which BGP message type is used to establish a connection between peers?
   a) Update
   b) Open
   c) Notification
   d) Keepalive

9. What does the “show ip bgp summary” command display?
   a) The BGP routing table
   b) The status of BGP neighbors
   c) The BGP path attributes
   d) The VLAN configuration

10. Which attribute does BGP use to determine the best path if multiple paths exist?
    a) AS path
    b) Weight
    c) Local preference
    d) MED

11. What does “eBGP” stand for?
    a) Enhanced BGP
    b) External BGP
    c) Extended BGP
    d) Edge BGP

12. How does BGP handle prefix filtering?
    a) By using IP addresses
    b) By using route-maps and prefix-lists
    c) By using VLAN IDs
    d) By using clear text commands

13. What does the “neighbor [IP address] remote-as [AS-number]” command do?
    a) Defines a BGP neighbor and its remote AS
    b) Disables BGP on an interface
    c) Sets the BGP administrative distance
    d) Configures VLANs on BGP

14. What is the role of “Route Reflector” in BGP?
    a) To reflect BGP routes within an AS
    b) To block external routes
    c) To encrypt BGP traffic
    d) To reduce BGP timers

15. Which BGP path attribute is used to influence the outbound traffic path?
    a) Local preference
    b) MED
    c) AS path
    d) Next-hop

QUIZ: Advanced BGP

1. What is BGP confederation?
   a) A method to reduce the size of the BGP routing table
   b) A way to divide an AS into smaller, sub-ASes
   c) A method to encrypt BGP updates
   d) A technique to merge ASes

2. What is the purpose of BGP “Route Reflectors”?
   a) To simplify BGP configuration by reducing the number of peer connections
   b) To increase BGP routing speed
   c) To block unnecessary routes
   d) To encrypt BGP messages

3. What does “BGP Path Selection” primarily depend on?
   a) The shortest hop count
   b) Various path attributes
   c) The highest bandwidth
   d) The router’s MAC address

4. How does BGP handle “Route Flap Damping”?
   a) By prioritizing flapped routes
   b) By suppressing routes that flap excessively
   c) By increasing the hop count
   d) By ignoring all changes

5. What is the “MED” attribute used for in BGP?
   a) To determine the lowest bandwidth
   b) To indicate the preferred path into an AS
   c) To encrypt routing information
   d) To prioritize VLANs

6. Which command displays detailed BGP route information, including attributes?
   a) show ip bgp

b) show ip bgp neighbors
c) show ip route bgp
d) show bgp summary

7. What is the role of the “BGP Community” attribute?
   a) To group routes into categories for easier policy management
   b) To encrypt BGP messages
   c) To determine the best path
   d) To manage VLAN IDs

8. What is the effect of setting “BGP Weight”?
   a) Influences the outbound path selection
   b) Increases BGP update frequency
   c) Encrypts BGP routes
   d) Reduces BGP convergence time

9. What does “BGP Multipath” allow?
   a) Use of multiple paths for load balancing
   b) Disabling of all but one path
   c) Use of the highest-cost path only
   d) Blocking of all external paths

10. How does a BGP speaker indicate that it can handle “Route Refresh” capability?
    a) In the BGP OPEN message
    b) In the BGP UPDATE message
    c) By sending a Notification
    d) By using an encrypted packet

11. Which feature allows BGP to automatically recover from neighbor session failures?
    a) Fast Peering
    b) BGP Graceful Restart
    c) Route Refresh
    d) BGP Notification

12. What is the default Keepalive timer for BGP?
    a) 30 seconds
    b) 60 seconds
    c) 90 seconds
    d) 180 seconds

13. What does “Soft Reconfiguration” in BGP allow?
    a) Non-disruptive policy changes
    b) Restarting all BGP neighbors
    c) Encrypting all routing updates
    d) Blocking external routes

14. Which BGP attribute helps prevent routing loops by checking AS path entries?
    a) MED
    b) Weight
    c) AS Path
    d) Local Preference

15. What does “ORF” stand for in BGP?
    a) Outbound Route Filter
    b) Optional Route Filtering
    c) Outbound Reflector Filter
    d) Optimal Routing Framework

QUIZ: Multicast

1. What is the primary purpose of IP multicast?
   a) To send data to a single host
   b) To send data to multiple hosts simultaneously
   c) To encrypt data packets
   d) To route data using shortest path

2. Which IP address range is reserved for multicast traffic?
   a) 192.168.0.0/16
   b) 10.0.0.0/8
   c) 224.0.0.0 to 239.255.255.255
   d) 172.16.0.0 to 172.31.255.255

3. What does IGMP stand for in multicast networking?
   a) Internet Gateway Management Protocol
   b) Internet Group Management Protocol
   c) Interior Gateway Management Protocol
   d) Inter-Gateway Messaging Protocol

4. Which protocol is commonly used to route multicast traffic across networks?
   a) OSPF
   b) EIGRP
   c) PIM (Protocol Independent Multicast)
   d) BGP

5. What is the primary role of a multicast “rendezvous point” (RP)?
   a) To manage multicast group membership
   b) To act as a shared distribution point for multicast traffic
   c) To encrypt multicast data
   d) To block unauthorized multicast traffic

6. What command shows IGMP groups on a Cisco router?
   a) show ip igmp groups
   b) show multicast groups
   c) show ip mroute
   d) show ip igmp interface

7. Which version of IGMP supports “source-specific multicast”?
   a) IGMPv1
   b) IGMPv2
   c) IGMPv3
   d) IGMPv4

8. What is a multicast distribution tree?
   a) A method to encrypt multicast traffic
   b) A structure that defines the path of multicast traffic from source to receivers
   c) A VLAN-specific routing technique
   d) A method for load balancing

9. Which multicast protocol operates at the data link layer?
   a) IGMP
   b) PIM
   c) CGMP (Cisco Group Management Protocol)
   d) OSPF

10. What is “Sparse Mode” in PIM?
    a) A mode where multicast traffic is sent to all routers by default
    b) A mode where multicast traffic is sent only when requested
    c) A method for routing unicast traffic
    d) A protocol for IPv6 multicast

11. How does a router become a DR (Designated Router) in PIM Sparse Mode?
    a) By having the highest IP address
    b) By election based on priority
    c) By using shortest path first
    d) By broadcasting an announcement

12. Which multicast address is used for all routers on a local network segment?
    a) 224.0.0.1
    b) 239.255.255.255
    c) 224.0.0.5
    d) 225.1.1.1

13. What is a “Multicast Listener Discovery” (MLD) used for in IPv6 networks?
    a) To discover unicast routes
    b) To manage multicast group memberships
    c) To encrypt multicast traffic
    d) To disable multicast features

14. Which PIM mode builds a “shared tree” first and switches to “shortest path tree” after the first packet?
    a) PIM Dense Mode
    b) PIM Sparse Mode
    c) PIM Sparse-Dense Mode
    d) PIM Source Specific Mode

15. How does PIM Sparse Mode differ from Dense Mode?
    a) Sparse Mode uses shortest path first; Dense Mode floods traffic
    b) Sparse Mode floods traffic; Dense Mode uses shortest path
    c) Sparse Mode is used only in IPv4; Dense Mode in IPv6
    d) Sparse Mode encrypts traffic; Dense Mode does not

QUIZ: QoS

1. What does QoS stand for in networking?
   a) Quality of Speed
   b) Quality of Service
   c) Quality of Security
   d) Quality of Software

2. What is the primary purpose of QoS?
   a) To increase data encryption
   b) To prioritize certain types of network traffic
   c) To manage VLAN configurations
   d) To disable unauthorized access

3. Which QoS mechanism is used to prevent packet loss during congestion?
   a) Traffic Shaping
   b) Traffic Policing
   c) Weighted Random Early Detection (WRED)
   d) Packet Filtering

4. What does “DSCP” stand for in QoS?
   a) Data Service Control Protocol
   b) Differentiated Services Code Point
   c) Dynamic Service Configuration Protocol
   d) Data Security Control Protocol

5. Which command enables QoS on a Cisco interface?
   a) qos enable
   b) ip qos trust
   c) mls qos trust
   d) set qos enable

6. What is the purpose of traffic policing in QoS?
   a) To limit bandwidth usage to a specific rate
   b) To prioritize all traffic equally
   c) To encrypt network data
   d) To block all unused ports

7. How does “Traffic Shaping” differ from “Traffic Policing”?
   a) Shaping delays excess packets; Policing drops excess packets
   b) Shaping drops excess packets; Policing delays excess packets
   c) Both delay excess packets
   d) Both drop excess packets

8. What does “FIFO” stand for in QoS queuing?
   a) Fast Input Fast Output
   b) First In First Out
   c) Fixed Interval Frame Output
   d) First Interval Frame Output

9. Which queuing technique is used for strict priority handling in QoS?
   a) Weighted Fair Queuing (WFQ)
   b) Low Latency Queuing (LLQ)
   c) Round Robin Queuing (RRQ)
   d) Random Early Detection (RED)

10. What is the purpose of a “Service Policy” in QoS?
    a) To encrypt data
    b) To apply QoS configurations to interfaces
    c) To manage VLAN memberships
    d) To disable unauthorized devices

11. What does “marking” refer to in QoS?
    a) Assigning a priority value to a packet
    b) Encrypting a packet
    c) Dropping a packet
    d) Redirecting a packet to another VLAN

12. How does “Link Efficiency Mechanism” improve QoS?
    a) By compressing headers to reduce overhead
    b) By dropping low-priority packets
    c) By encrypting all data
    d) By blocking unused ports

13. Which QoS model uses “Best Effort” as its default behavior?
    a) Integrated Services (IntServ)
    b) Differentiated Services (DiffServ)
    c) MPLS QoS
    d) Frame Relay QoS

14. What is “Class-Based Weighted Fair Queuing” (CBWFQ) used for in QoS?
    a) To provide weighted bandwidth allocation to different traffic classes
    b) To drop all low-priority traffic
    c) To provide equal bandwidth allocation
    d) To encrypt high-priority traffic

15. What does the “ip precedence” command configure in QoS?
    a) Traffic shaping
    b) Packet marking based on priority
    c) Traffic policing
    d) VLAN membership

QUIZ: IP Services

1. What is the primary function of DHCP in IP services?
   a) To assign IP addresses dynamically
   b) To encrypt data packets
   c) To route IP traffic
   d) To block unauthorized devices

2. What does “NAT” stand for in networking?
   a) Network Access Technology
   b) Network Address Translation
   c) Network Application Transport
   d) Network Allocation Table

3. Which type of NAT allows multiple devices on a local network to share a single public IP address?
   a) Static NAT
   b) Dynamic NAT
   c) PAT (Port Address Translation)
   d) SNAT (Source NAT)

4. What is the primary purpose of DNS in IP services?
   a) To provide dynamic routing
   b) To translate domain names to IP addresses
   c) To encrypt data packets
   d) To create VLANs

5. Which command configures a DHCP server on a Cisco router?
   a) dhcp enable
   b) ip dhcp pool [name]
   c) set dhcp pool
   d) dhcp configure

6. What is the role of “DHCP Relay”?
   a) To forward DHCP requests to a DHCP server on a different subnet
   b) To encrypt DHCP traffic
   c) To block unauthorized DHCP servers
   d) To manage VLAN memberships

7. How does “Dynamic NAT” differ from “Static NAT”?
   a) Dynamic NAT uses a pool of public IP addresses; Static NAT uses one-to-one mapping
   b) Dynamic NAT encrypts data; Static NAT does not
   c) Dynamic NAT is for IPv6 only; Static NAT is for IPv4 only
   d) Dynamic NAT uses VLANs; Static NAT does not

8. What is the purpose of “IP SLA” in IP services?
   a) To measure network performance and reliability
   b) To assign IP addresses
   c) To encrypt data
   d) To block unauthorized devices

9. Which command enables NAT on a Cisco router?
   a) ip nat inside
   b) ip nat enable
   c) nat set enable
   d) ip nat configure

10. What does “Dynamic DNS” allow a user to do?
    a) Change IP addresses dynamically
    b) Map domain names to IP addresses that change frequently
    c) Encrypt DNS queries
    d) Block DNS traffic

11. What does “DHCP Snooping” protect against?
    a) Unauthorized DHCP servers and IP address assignments
    b) Data packet encryption
    c) VLAN hopping
    d) DNS spoofing

12. What is the function of “DNS Forwarding”?
    a) To forward DNS requests to another DNS server
    b) To block DNS traffic
    c) To encrypt DNS packets
    d) To manage VLAN memberships

13. How does “Port Address Translation” (PAT) extend NAT functionality?
    a) By using unique source port numbers to distinguish between multiple sessions
    b) By encrypting IP addresses
    c) By blocking all unauthorized traffic
    d) By creating VLANs automatically

14. What does the “ip helper-address” command configure on a router?
    a) DHCP Relay
    b) DNS Server
    c) NAT Pool
    d) IPsec VPN

15. What is the default lease time for a DHCP IP address assignment?
    a) 12 hours
    b) 24 hours
    c) 7 days
    d) 30 days

QUIZ: Overlay Tunnels

1. What is the primary purpose of overlay tunnels in networking?
   a) To encrypt data traffic
   b) To create virtual point-to-point connections over an existing network
   c) To block unauthorized access
   d) To prioritize VoIP traffic

2. Which type of tunnel is commonly used to connect two IPv6 networks over an IPv4 infrastructure?
   a) GRE Tunnel
   b) IPsec Tunnel
   c) 6to4 Tunnel
   d) VLAN Tunnel

3. What does “GRE” stand for in the context of overlay tunnels?
   a) Generic Routing Encapsulation
   b) General Relay Encryption
   c) Gateway Router Exchange
   d) Global Routing Extension

4. Which command is used to create a GRE tunnel interface on a Cisco router?
   a) interface tunnel [number]
   b) create gre tunnel [number]
   c) gre tunnel enable [number]
   d) tunnel gre [number]

5. What is the main advantage of using IPsec tunnels?
   a) Provides data encryption and authentication
   b) Increases network bandwidth
   c) Decreases network latency
   d) Prioritizes voice traffic

6. How does a “DMVPN” differ from a standard GRE tunnel?
   a) DMVPN supports dynamic creation of multiple GRE tunnels
   b) DMVPN is for IPv6 only
   c) DMVPN blocks all encrypted traffic
   d) DMVPN uses VLANs instead of tunnels

7. What is “MPLS” primarily used for in overlay networks?
   a) To create VLANs
   b) To provide high-speed data transport with traffic engineering capabilities
   c) To block unauthorized users
   d) To prioritize VoIP traffic

8. What protocol does “LISP” use to map IP addresses in overlay networks?
   a) OSPF
   b) EIGRP
   c) BGP
   d) LISP Mapping Protocol

9. Which command verifies the status of a GRE tunnel on a Cisco router?
   a) show interfaces tunnel [number]
   b) show ip tunnel [number]
   c) display tunnel status [number]
   d) show gre status [number]

10. What is the purpose of “overlay tunnels” in SD-WAN deployments?
    a) To create secure, virtual WAN connections
    b) To encrypt VLAN traffic
    c) To prioritize DNS queries
    d) To block unauthorized devices

11. What is the function of “IP-in-IP” tunneling?
    a) To encapsulate one IP packet inside another IP packet
    b) To encrypt IP traffic
    c) To manage VLANs
    d) To prioritize video traffic

12. What does “tunnel mode ipsec ipv4” configure on a Cisco router?
    a) An IPsec tunnel for IPv4 traffic
    b) A GRE tunnel for IPv4 traffic
    c) A tunnel for IPv6 traffic
    d) A VLAN trunk tunnel

13. How does “GRE over IPsec” enhance tunnel security?
    a) By providing encryption and integrity for GRE tunnels
    b) By increasing data throughput
    c) By blocking all non-GRE traffic
    d) By creating dynamic VLANs

14. Which tunneling protocol is typically used in SD-WAN for secure communications?
    a) GRE
    b) IPsec
    c) L2TP
    d) MPLS

15. What is a characteristic of “VXLAN” in overlay networks?
    a) Uses a 24-bit segment ID to scale VLANs beyond 4096
    b) Encrypts all traffic
    c) Blocks all non-IP traffic
    d) Prioritizes multicast traffic only

QUIZ: Wireless Signals and Modulation

1. What is the primary purpose of modulation in wireless communication?
   a) To increase signal strength
   b) To encode information onto a carrier wave
   c) To reduce noise in the signal
   d) To encrypt data

2. Which modulation technique is commonly used in Wi-Fi standards like 802.11n and 802.11ac?
   a) Frequency Modulation (FM)
   b) Amplitude Modulation (AM)
   c) Quadrature Amplitude Modulation (QAM)
   d) Phase Shift Keying (PSK)

3. What does “OFDM” stand for in wireless communication?
   a) Orthogonal Frequency Division Multiplexing
   b) Optimized Frequency Distribution Method
   c) Ordered Frequency Data Modulation
   d) Orthogonal Frequency Domain Modulation

4. Which wireless frequency band offers greater penetration through walls and obstacles?
   a) 2.4 GHz
   b) 5 GHz
   c) 6 GHz
   d) 1 GHz

5. What is the primary advantage of using a higher modulation scheme like 256-QAM?
   a) Increased data throughput
   b) Reduced signal interference
   c) Greater signal range
   d) Lower power consumption

6. What type of wireless interference is caused by devices like microwaves and cordless phones?
   a) Co-channel interference
   b) Cross-talk
   c) Adjacent channel interference
   d) RF interference

7. Which term describes the amount of data that can be transmitted over a wireless channel in a given amount of time?
   a) Latency
   b) Bandwidth
   c) Throughput
   d) Signal-to-noise ratio

8. What is “beamforming” in wireless communication?
   a) A technique to increase power output
   b) A method to focus the wireless signal towards specific clients
   c) A technique to block interference
   d) A method to encrypt wireless data

9. Which wireless standard uses MU-MIMO technology to improve throughput?
   a) 802.11a
   b) 802.11b
   c) 802.11n
   d) 802.11ac

10. What does “SNR” stand for in wireless networking?
    a) Signal Network Range
    b) Signal-to-Noise Ratio
    c) System Noise Reduction
    d) Standard Network Response

11. How does “DFS” help in wireless communication?
    a) Dynamically changes channels to avoid interference
    b) Reduces data transmission speed
    c) Blocks non-Wi-Fi devices
    d) Encrypts wireless data

12. What modulation technique is used to minimize interference and increase robustness in OFDM systems?
    a) Phase Shift Keying (PSK)
    b) Frequency Hopping Spread Spectrum (FHSS)
    c) Direct Sequence Spread Spectrum (DSSS)
    d) Quadrature Amplitude Modulation (QAM)

13. Which wireless technology allows multiple devices to share a single frequency channel without interference?
    a) Frequency Division Multiplexing (FDM)
    b) Time Division Multiplexing (TDM)
    c) Code Division Multiple Access (CDMA)
    d) Spatial Division Multiplexing (SDM)

14. What is the primary purpose of a wireless “antenna diversity”?
    a) To enhance the range of signal
    b) To increase modulation rate
    c) To reduce the effects of multipath interference
    d) To encrypt wireless communication

15. Which command on a Cisco wireless controller verifies the status of wireless radios?
    a) show ap config general
    b) show radio status
    c) show wlan summary
    d) show ap radio status

QUIZ: Wireless Infrastructure

1. What is the primary function of a wireless access point (AP)?
   a) To provide power to devices
   b) To bridge wireless clients to a wired network
   c) To encrypt data
   d) To manage VLANs

2. Which wireless architecture centralizes management and control of access points?
   a) Autonomous
   b) Lightweight
   c) Distributed
   d) Mesh

3. What does “CAPWAP” stand for in wireless networks?
   a) Cisco Access Point Wireless Access Protocol
   b) Control and Provisioning of Wireless Access Points
   c) Centralized Access Point Wireless Authentication Protocol
   d) Control Access and Provision Wireless Authentication Protocol

4. Which type of wireless deployment uses multiple access points with the same SSID to extend coverage?
   a) Point-to-Point
   b) Point-to-Multipoint
   c) Wireless Mesh Network
   d) Extended Service Set (ESS)

5. What is the purpose of a wireless LAN controller (WLC)?
   a) To encrypt wireless traffic
   b) To manage multiple wireless access points
   c) To provide DNS services
   d) To route IP packets

6. Which protocol allows seamless client roaming between access points in a centralized wireless architecture?
   a) RADIUS
   b) 802.11r
   c) OSPF
   d) EIGRP

7. What feature on a Cisco WLC helps in detecting and mitigating rogue access points?
   a) AP FlexConnect
   b) CleanAir
   c) Rogue Detection
   d) Radio Resource Management (RRM)

8. What is the primary role of “Radio Resource Management” (RRM) in a wireless network?
   a) To manage VLAN assignments
   b) To optimize wireless channel and power settings
   c) To block unauthorized devices
   d) To encrypt wireless data

9. Which type of AP deployment is most suitable for high-density environments?
   a) Autonomous AP
   b) Lightweight AP with WLC
   c) Mesh AP
   d) Repeater AP

10. What does “DHCP Option 43” provide in a wireless infrastructure?
    a) Wireless client IP address
    b) SSID for wireless clients
    c) Wireless LAN controller IP address
    d) VLAN ID for access points

11. How does “AP Grouping” enhance wireless network management on a WLC?
    a) Allows configuration changes to be applied to specific groups of APs
    b) Increases AP power output
    c) Encrypts wireless data
    d) Provides VLAN segmentation

12. Which command on a Cisco WLC shows the number of clients connected to each SSID?
    a) show client summary
    b) show wlan summary
    c) show client details
    d) show wlan clients

13. What is the function of “CleanAir” technology in Cisco wireless networks?
    a) To improve air quality in data centers
    b) To detect and mitigate RF interference
    c) To enhance signal range
    d) To provide VLAN tagging

14. What is the purpose of “FlexConnect” in Cisco wireless networks?
    a) To provide backup power to access points
    b) To allow access points to switch between local and centralized switching
    c) To encrypt wireless data
    d) To create VLANs

15. What feature allows wireless clients to maintain connectivity while moving between access points in a network?
    a) VLAN hopping
    b) Wireless Fast Roaming
    c) Access Point Bridging
    d) Wireless Encryption

QUIZ: Understanding Wireless Roaming and Location Services

1. What is the primary purpose of wireless roaming in a network?
   a) To provide encryption
   b) To allow seamless connectivity when a client moves between access points
   c) To manage VLANs
   d) To increase signal strength

2. Which protocol is specifically designed to optimize fast roaming in Wi-Fi networks?
   a) 802.11r
   b) 802.11ac
   c) 802.1X
   d) 802.11b

3. What is “Layer 2 Roaming” in wireless networks?
   a) Moving between access points within the same subnet
   b) Moving between access points in different subnets
   c) Encrypting wireless data
   d) Changing VLAN assignments

4. What is the benefit of “Layer 3 Roaming” in wireless networks?
   a) Allows clients to roam between different IP subnets
   b) Increases wireless bandwidth
   c) Reduces network latency
   d) Encrypts all data traffic

5. What technology allows for the detection and location tracking of wireless devices in a network?
   a) Wi-Fi Analytics
   b) Wireless Location Services
   c) Virtual Private Network (VPN)
   d) Wireless Range Extender

6. How does “RSSI” (Received Signal Strength Indicator) affect wireless roaming?
   a) Higher RSSI means better signal strength and lower likelihood of roaming
   b) Lower RSSI means better signal strength and more frequent roaming
   c) RSSI only affects wired connections

d) RSSI has no impact on wireless connections

7. What feature allows wireless clients to authenticate faster during roaming?
   a) WPA2-Personal
   b) 802.1X Authentication
   c) Pre-shared Key
   d) Fast BSS Transition (FT)

8. Which wireless technology is essential for location-based services and analytics?
   a) Bluetooth Low Energy (BLE)
   b) Ethernet
   c) Virtual LAN (VLAN)
   d) IPsec

9. What command on a Cisco WLC checks roaming statistics?
   a) show client roam-history
   b) show mobility statistics
   c) show wlan summary
   d) show ap status

10. What is the purpose of “Client Load Balancing” in wireless networks?
    a) To prevent overloading a single access point by evenly distributing clients
    b) To increase power output of access points
    c) To create VLANs automatically
    d) To encrypt wireless data

11. How does “Adaptive Wireless Path Optimization” (AWPO) work in wireless networks?
    a) By dynamically adjusting client paths for optimal performance
    b) By encrypting all wireless data
    c) By creating static paths
    d) By managing VLANs

12. What is the function of a “Mobility Anchor” in a wireless network?
    a) To manage client roaming between controllers
    b) To block unauthorized devices
    c) To provide DNS services
    d) To route IP traffic

13. What is “Sticky Client” behavior in wireless networks?
    a) When a client remains connected to an AP even when a stronger signal is available
    b) When a client constantly roams between access points
    c) When a client encrypts all traffic
    d) When a client switches VLANs automatically

14. What does “RTLS” stand for in wireless location services?
    a) Real-Time Location Services
    b) Remote Transmission Line Services
    c) Random Traffic Load Services
    d) Real-Time Logging System

15. How does “Wireless Intrusion Prevention System” (WIPS) help in wireless networks?
    a) By detecting and mitigating unauthorized devices and attacks
    b) By increasing wireless speed
    c) By providing VLAN segmentation
    d) By encrypting all wireless traffic

QUIZ: Authenticating Wireless Clients

1. What is the primary purpose of wireless client authentication?
   a) To encrypt data
   b) To verify client identity before granting network access
   c) To manage IP addresses
   d) To provide VLAN segmentation

2. Which authentication method uses a pre-shared key (PSK) in wireless networks?
   a) 802.1X
   b) WPA2-Enterprise
   c) WPA2-Personal
   d) RADIUS

3. What protocol does 802.1X use to provide authentication in wireless networks?
   a) IPsec
   b) GRE
   c) EAP (Extensible Authentication Protocol)
   d) BGP

4. What is the role of a RADIUS server in wireless client authentication?
   a) To assign IP addresses
   b) To provide centralized authentication and accounting services
   c) To encrypt wireless data
   d) To manage VLAN configurations

5. Which command on a Cisco WLC enables WPA2-Enterprise authentication?
   a) set wlan security wpa wpa2 enable
   b) wlan security wpa wpa2 enterprise enable
   c) wlan enable wpa2-enterprise
   d) configure wlan wpa2-enterprise

6. What is the primary difference between WPA2-Enterprise and WPA2-Personal?
   a) WPA2-Enterprise requires a RADIUS server for authentication
   b) WPA2-Enterprise uses a pre-shared key
   c) WPA2-Personal provides centralized logging
   d) WPA2-Personal uses 802.1X

7. What is “MAC Filtering” used for in wireless networks?
   a) To filter multicast traffic
   b) To restrict access based on device MAC addresses
   c) To increase signal strength
   d) To provide VLAN tagging

8. What does “PEAP” stand for in wireless authentication?
   a) Protected Extensible Authentication Protocol
   b) Public Encryption Access Protocol
   c) Private Endpoint Access Protocol
   d) Pre-shared Extensible Authentication Protocol

9. How does “EAP-TLS” provide wireless client security?
   a) By using client and server certificates for mutual authentication
   b) By encrypting traffic with a pre-shared key
   c) By using a simple password for access
   d) By assigning VLANs

10. What is the benefit of using “Guest Access” in wireless networks?
    a) Provides limited access to network resources without full authentication
    b) Encrypts all guest traffic
    c) Increases bandwidth for guest users
    d) Creates VLANs for guests

11. What is “EAP-FAST” designed to improve in wireless networks?
    a) Encryption speed
    b) Secure authentication without the need for certificates
    c) Guest network access
    d) Data throughput

12. Which wireless security method is considered the most secure for enterprise environments?
    a) WEP
    b) WPA2-Personal
    c) WPA2-Enterprise with 802.1X
    d) WPA2-PSK

13. What is “MAB” (MAC Authentication Bypass) used for in wireless networks?
    a) To allow devices without 802.1X capabilities to connect based on their MAC address
    b) To block unauthorized users
    c) To encrypt all wireless data
    d) To prioritize VoIP traffic

14. How does “Captive Portal” enhance guest access security in wireless networks?
    a) By redirecting users to a web page for authentication before granting network access
    b) By encrypting all guest data
    c) By creating VLANs for guests
    d) By increasing signal strength

15. What is the role of “WPA3” in wireless security?
    a) To provide enhanced encryption and security features over WPA2
    b) To disable encryption
    c) To reduce signal interference
    d) To create VLANs

QUIZ: Troubleshooting Wireless Connectivity

1. What is the first step in troubleshooting a wireless connectivity issue?
   a) Replacing the access point
   b) Rebooting the entire network
   c) Identifying the scope and nature of the problem
   d) Upgrading firmware

2. Which tool is commonly used to detect wireless signal strength and interference?
   a) Ping
   b) Traceroute
   c) Wi-Fi Analyzer
   d) NetFlow

3. What does a low “RSSI” value indicate in a wireless network?
   a) High signal strength
   b) Low signal strength
   c) High throughput
   d) Low latency

4. Which command on a Cisco wireless controller displays client connectivity status?
   a) show client summary
   b) show wlan clients
   c) show ip dhcp binding
   d) show client detail

5. What is “Co-channel interference” in wireless networks?
   a) Interference from different channels
   b) Interference from devices on the same channel
   c) Interference from non-Wi-Fi devices
   d) Interference from power cables

6. What does “DFS” (Dynamic Frequency Selection) do in a wireless network?
   a) Selects channels to avoid radar interference
   b) Disables unused channels
   c) Prioritizes voice traffic
   d) Encrypts wireless data

7. How can a “Sticky Client” issue affect wireless performance?
   a) The client may stay connected to a distant AP, reducing performance
   b) The client may disconnect frequently
   c) The client may increase bandwidth usage
   d) The client may roam too often

8. Which wireless feature helps mitigate interference from neighboring Wi-Fi networks?
   a) 802.11ac
   b) Beamforming
   c) Channel Bonding
   d) Band Steering

9. What is a “rogue access point”?
   a) An authorized access point
   b) An unauthorized access point posing a security risk
   c) A high-power access point
   d) A low-bandwidth access point

10. How does a “Site Survey” help in troubleshooting wireless networks?
    a) By identifying coverage areas and sources of interference
    b) By encrypting data
    c) By managing VLAN configurations
    d) By prioritizing traffic

11. Which command on a Cisco WLC can help identify interference sources?
    a) show ap auto-rf 802.11a
    b) show wlan interference
    c) show client detail
    d) show rf summary

12. What is the impact of “Multipath Interference” on wireless signals?
    a) It enhances signal strength
    b) It can cause signal degradation due to multiple signal paths
    c) It increases network security
    d) It provides automatic channel switching

13. How does “Band Steering” improve wireless performance?
    a) By steering clients to the 5 GHz band to reduce congestion
    b) By switching channels frequently
    c) By increasing signal power
    d) By encrypting traffic

14. What does a “Yellow Triangle” symbol on a wireless client indicate in the Windows OS?
    a) Excellent connectivity
    b) Limited or no connectivity
    c) Fast data speeds
    d) High signal strength

15. Which command would you use to restart a specific access point on a Cisco WLC?
    a) reset ap [AP-name]
    b) ap reload [AP-name]
    c) restart ap [AP-name]
    d) ap reset [AP-name]

QUIZ: Enterprise Network Architecture

1. What is the primary goal of enterprise network architecture?
   a) To increase bandwidth
   b) To create a secure, scalable, and reliable network infrastructure
   c) To reduce the number of devices
   d) To manage VLANs

2. Which layer of the network architecture model is responsible for routing and access control?
   a) Core layer
   b) Distribution layer
   c) Access layer
   d) Data link layer

3. What is the function of the “Core Layer” in a hierarchical network design?
   a) To provide direct user access
   b) To switch VLANs
   c) To provide fast transport between distribution layers
   d) To manage IP addresses

4. What is the benefit of using a “Two-Tier” architecture over a “Three-Tier” architecture?
   a) Increased redundancy
   b) Reduced complexity and cost
   c) Enhanced security
   d) Improved VLAN management

5. Which network architecture model supports both wired and wireless access on a unified infrastructure?
   a) Hybrid architecture
   b) Converged architecture
   c) Distributed architecture
   d) Traditional architecture

6. What role does a “WAN Edge” play in enterprise network architecture?
   a) It acts as a firewall
   b) It connects the enterprise network to external networks
   c) It encrypts internal traffic
   d) It provides VLAN segmentation

7. Which term describes the separation of network control plane from the data plane?
   a) Network segmentation
   b) Software-Defined Networking (SDN)
   c) Network virtualization
   d) VLAN pruning

8. What is a “Spine-Leaf” architecture commonly used for?
   a) Data center networks to reduce latency and improve scalability
   b) Campus networks to enhance Wi-Fi performance
   c) WAN connectivity to remote sites
   d) VLAN management

9. Which type of network design uses multiple connections between devices for redundancy and load balancing?
   a) Hub and Spoke
   b) Mesh
   c) Star
   d) Ring

10. What is the primary function of a “Firewall” in enterprise network architecture?
    a) To route IP packets
    b) To provide network security by controlling traffic
    c) To manage VLANs
    d) To increase bandwidth

11. What does “Network Segmentation” help achieve in enterprise networks?
    a) Improved signal strength
    b) Enhanced security and performance by dividing the network into isolated segments
    c) Faster routing
    d) Increased bandwidth

12. Which Cisco technology is designed for simplified deployment and management of campus networks?
    a) Cisco DNA (Digital Network Architecture)
    b) Cisco Meraki
    c) Cisco ACI
    d) Cisco ASA

13. How does “High Availability” benefit enterprise networks?
    a) By reducing costs
    b) By minimizing downtime and ensuring continuous network services
    c) By encrypting data
    d) By increasing latency

14. What is the role of “Load Balancers” in network architecture?
    a) To manage IP addresses
    b) To distribute traffic evenly across multiple servers
    c) To encrypt data
    d) To create VLANs

15. Which network topology connects each network device to a central hub or switch?
    a) Star topology
    b) Mesh topology
    c) Ring topology
    d) Hybrid topology

QUIZ: Fabric Technologies

1. What is a “network fabric” in modern network design?
   a) A physical layer cable
   b) A unified infrastructure for data transport with multiple interconnected nodes
   c) A type of VLAN
   d) A Wi-Fi standard

2. Which Cisco technology is known for creating an SDN fabric in data centers?
   a) Cisco ACI (Application Centric Infrastructure)
   b) Cisco ASA
   c) Cisco Meraki
   d) Cisco DNA

3. What is the main benefit of using fabric technologies in network design?
   a) Increased network latency
   b) Simplified management and enhanced scalability
   c) Decreased data encryption
   d) Increased hardware requirements

4. What is “VXLAN” used for in fabric technologies?
   a) To create Layer 2 overlays on Layer 3 networks
   b) To encrypt network traffic
   c) To manage IP addresses
   d) To route BGP traffic

5. Which component of Cisco ACI acts as the centralized control point?
   a) APIC (Application Policy Infrastructure Controller)
   b) Nexus Switch
   c) Catalyst Switch
   d) Cisco DNA Center

6. What is a “leaf switch” in a spine-leaf architecture?
   a) A switch that provides interconnection between spine switches
   b) A switch that provides network access for servers and endpoints
   c) A core layer router
   d) A wireless access point

7. How does “micro-segmentation” improve network security in a fabric?
   a) By grouping all devices into a single VLAN
   b) By isolating workloads and applying security policies at the individual workload level
   c) By increasing bandwidth
   d) By disabling unused ports

8. What protocol does VXLAN use for tunneling?
   a) GRE
   b) IPsec
   c) UDP
   d

) ICMP

9. In Cisco ACI, what is an “endpoint group” (EPG)?
   a) A collection of endpoints with similar policies
   b) A type of VLAN
   c) A routing protocol
   d) An encryption standard

10. Which command on a Cisco Nexus switch verifies VXLAN configuration?
    a) show vxlan status
    b) show nve vni
    c) show fabric vxlan
    d) show ip vxlan

11. What is the purpose of the “spine switches” in a spine-leaf architecture?
    a) To provide server access
    b) To provide high-speed interconnection between leaf switches
    c) To route internet traffic
    d) To manage VLANs

12. How does Cisco ACI achieve policy-driven automation?
    a) By using static routing
    b) By using application policies defined in the APIC
    c) By encrypting all traffic
    d) By manually configuring each switch

13. What is “EVPN” used for in fabric technologies?
    a) To extend VLANs across data centers
    b) To encrypt IP traffic
    c) To route multicast traffic
    d) To manage QoS policies

14. What is a key feature of SD-WAN fabric?
    a) Centralized management of WAN connections
    b) Increased bandwidth on local networks
    c) Enhanced VLAN tagging
    d) Direct fiber connections

15. Which Cisco technology uses intent-based networking to simplify network management?
    a) Cisco DNA (Digital Network Architecture)
    b) Cisco Meraki
    c) Cisco ASA
    d) Cisco UCS

QUIZ: Network Assurance

1. What is the primary goal of network assurance?
   a) To increase bandwidth
   b) To provide proactive monitoring and troubleshooting
   c) To manage VLANs
   d) To reduce encryption

2. Which Cisco solution provides network assurance in enterprise networks?
   a) Cisco Meraki
   b) Cisco DNA Assurance
   c) Cisco ASA
   d) Cisco ACI

3. What role does “Telemetry” play in network assurance?
   a) To route traffic
   b) To provide real-time data for network monitoring
   c) To encrypt data
   d) To create VLANs

4. What does “Cisco DNA Assurance” use to detect and resolve network issues?
   a) Manual configuration
   b) Artificial Intelligence and Machine Learning
   c) VLAN tagging
   d) Static IP routing

5. What is “NetFlow” used for in network assurance?
   a) To collect IP traffic information for analysis
   b) To encrypt network traffic
   c) To manage QoS
   d) To configure VLANs

6. Which protocol is commonly used for network device monitoring and management?
   a) SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol)
   b) BGP
   c) EIGRP
   d) MPLS

7. What is the benefit of “Network Insights” in network assurance?
   a) Improved encryption
   b) Enhanced visibility into network health and performance
   c) Increased bandwidth
   d) Reduced latency

8. How does “Path Trace” help in troubleshooting network issues?
   a) By identifying the exact path packets take through the network
   b) By encrypting packets
   c) By blocking unused ports
   d) By increasing signal strength

9. What does “Compliance Assurance” ensure in a network environment?
   a) That all devices adhere to network policies and regulations
   b) That all devices are encrypted
   c) That all devices use VLANs
   d) That all devices are powered on

10. Which command is used to verify SNMP configuration on a Cisco device?
    a) show snmp status
    b) show snmp community
    c) show snmp configuration
    d) show ip snmp

11. What is the function of “network baselining” in network assurance?
    a) To establish a standard performance level for comparison
    b) To encrypt all network traffic
    c) To disable unused interfaces
    d) To prioritize VLAN traffic

12. How does “Cisco DNA Assurance” provide proactive insights?
    a) By using AI/ML to predict potential issues
    b) By manually configuring alerts
    c) By encrypting network data
    d) By routing traffic to backup paths

13. What role do “network probes” play in network assurance?
    a) To monitor and analyze network traffic in real-time
    b) To block unauthorized devices
    c) To provide VLAN segmentation
    d) To route IP traffic

14. What is the purpose of “Cisco Stealthwatch” in network assurance?
    a) To detect and respond to threats using network telemetry
    b) To provide wireless connectivity
    c) To manage IP addresses
    d) To configure VLANs

15. What is “End-to-End Visibility” in network assurance?
    a) Comprehensive monitoring across the entire network infrastructure
    b) Increased signal strength
    c) VLAN hopping detection
    d) Encryption of all data

QUIZ: Secure Network Access Control

1. What is the primary purpose of network access control (NAC)?
   a) To encrypt data
   b) To enforce security policies for device access to the network
   c) To manage VLANs
   d) To increase bandwidth

2. Which Cisco solution provides secure network access control?
   a) Cisco Meraki
   b) Cisco ISE (Identity Services Engine)
   c) Cisco ASA
   d) Cisco DNA

3. What does “802.1X” provide in network security?
   a) VLAN assignment
   b) Port-based network access control
   c) Increased data throughput
   d) IP address management

4. What is a “supplicant” in the context of 802.1X authentication?
   a) The device seeking network access
   b) The server providing authentication
   c) The switch enforcing policies
   d) The encryption protocol

5. Which protocol is used to transport RADIUS messages over a secure connection?
   a) SNMP
   b) IPsec
   c) DTLS (Datagram Transport Layer Security)
   d) OSPF

6. How does “Posture Assessment” enhance network security?
   a) By evaluating the compliance status of a device before granting access
   b) By encrypting all data
   c) By managing VLANs
   d) By blocking unauthorized access

7. What is the role of “Guest Access” in network access control?
   a) To provide limited network access to guests
   b) To encrypt guest data
   c) To manage guest VLANs
   d) To increase guest bandwidth

8. What is “MAB” (MAC Authentication Bypass) used for in NAC?
   a) To allow devices without 802.1X capability to access the network
   b) To block unauthorized devices
   c) To encrypt data
   d) To prioritize VLAN traffic

9. How does “Cisco TrustSec” enhance network security?
   a) By segmenting traffic based on security groups
   b) By providing wireless access
   c) By managing IP addresses
   d) By routing traffic

10. Which command on a Cisco switch enables 802.1X authentication on an interface?
    a) dot1x port-control auto
    b) enable 802.1X
    c) set 802.1X enable
    d) interface auth enable

11. What is the function of a “RADIUS server” in secure network access control?
    a) To authenticate and authorize network access requests
    b) To encrypt network traffic
    c) To manage VLANs
    d) To route IP packets

12. What is “Cisco ISE” primarily used for in network environments?
    a) To provide identity-based network access control and policy enforcement
    b) To encrypt wireless data
    c) To manage VLANs
    d) To increase bandwidth

13. What is the role of “Profiling” in Cisco ISE?
    a) To identify and classify devices on the network
    b) To encrypt data
    c) To provide VLAN segmentation
    d) To block unauthorized traffic

14. How does “TrustSec SGT” (Security Group Tagging) improve security?
    a) By applying security policies based on user roles and groups
    b) By increasing bandwidth
    c) By managing VLANs
    d) By encrypting all traffic

15. What is the purpose of “BYOD” (Bring Your Own Device) policies in network access control?
    a) To manage and secure personal devices connecting to the corporate network
    b) To increase signal strength
    c) To provide VLANs for devices
    d) To encrypt personal data